Why does frio have an accent mark

There are two basic rules in Spanish that tell us where to put the stress of a word. Stress is important, as it can sometimes be the only way to distinguish two words. To hear words and accents in use by native Spanish speakers, use FluentU. FluentU takes real-world videos—like music videos, movie trailers, news and inspiring talks—and turns them into personalized language learning lessons.

For words that end in a vowel, the letter n, or the letter s, the stress is on the next to last syllable. For words that end in all other consonants not n or s , the stress falls on the last syllable. For those interested in Spanish syllable breaks, but not interested enough to learn all of the rules behind the splits just yet, you can use this handy tool to break any Spanish word into its correct syllables.

Here are some examples of Spanish words with accent marks that break rule 1. And here are examples of words that break the second rule. Accent marks are also used in Spanish to differentiate between words that are pronounced and therefore spelled the same but that have different meanings: homonyms. Spanish accents are also found on all interrogative words when used in a question, indirect question or embedded question. When these words are not used in a question or indirect question, but rather as a pronoun, there is no accent mark.

Here are three example sentences of this situation:. El chico que dijo eso es mentiroso. The boy who said that is a liar. No trabajo cuando estoy enferma. Spanish Tips - Accents [deactivated user]. Vowel, N, or S So if the word ends in a vowel, n or s a, e, i, o, u, s, n the stress goes on the second to last syllable. Thanks for reading!!! January 31, February 1, February 17, February 16, February 21, February 7, February 15, JamiaHill The letter I receives the stress the accent mark in either situation, either to shift the stress from strong to weak vowel or to prevent the diphthong from forming.

According to this site it is fri -o, so no diphthong was formed or there would only be one syllable. That's not an accent, that's a goosebump.

My understanding so far is that placing the accent over the strong vowel within a dipthong would cause the dipthong itself to be accented within the word when it would not normally be accented. So far as I can tell, there is no such thing as "shifting the stress within the dipthong. Or, at least, this is how I understand it currently. And, again, this perception is all based on my reading of this article. Consider the 3rd pers sing preterit of of "ver "vio".

One syllable, no tilde, stress on the "o". In vio a diphthong is formed and the accent is on the strong vowel as the rules say that it should be.

Since the diphthong is formed it is one syllable. Your example substantiates everything that I said, so I don't understand what you are trying to say. If the accent mark is used to either shift the stress from strong to weak vowel it would still be one syllable diphthong formed. If the accent mark blocked the formation of the diphthong there would be two syllables. As there is no accent mark, neither case applies.

We were discussing what the addition of the accent mark actually does. What does the addition of the accent to the word frio do?